did stalin starve the ukrainians on purpose? he starved some of them. the fact that stalin was a caucasian aside, there is no ethnic difference between a russian, a pole and a ukrainian, and trying to argue for a russian genocide targeted at ukranians is hard to properly define.

the reality is that, as a geopolitical entity and nation-state, ukraine didn't really exist yet, at the time. it was just southern russia. the concept of the holodomar is consequently rooted in a historical anachronism.

it is true that there was a lot of opposition to stalin in the southern regions of russia, and he does appear to have taken advantage of the famine, which was indeed brought on by his policies. that is a different idea, though, than claiming that he planned it all out from the start, like hitler did the holocaust - this wasn't something that was mapped out years earlier, and ukrainians were not specifically targeted due to their...i don't want to even use the word ethnicity. they have the same religion, even. their dialect? what identifiable characteristic do you even base the claim of difference on?

it would be like white new englanders carrying out a genocide against white southerners. you couldn't even figure out who was who, if it wasn't for the different accents.

rather, i think that obfuscating the primary point of history here, which was that the forced collectivization fucked up the farming industry, is rather unhelpful in understanding what actually happened.

and, there remain lessons here about what happens when you shut down the economy too fast, in the wrong way - millions of people starve to death.